Why and how was the Bible mistranslated?

New Age Bible Versions

New Age Bible Versions



The old King James Bible is the most accurate and the most gay friendly Bible in the English language. It never uses the word homosexual and it carefully identifies shrine prostitutes as worshipers of the Canaanite fertility goddess instead of saying they are homosexuals.

Most Biblical Greek lexicons in the twentieth century made the mistake of defining Greek words like the malakos stem (malakoi) and the arsenokoit stem (arsenokoitai) to mean homosexual. They do this based on breaking down the word into its parts, instead of paying attention to how Greek speaking people in the first fourteen centuries of church history actually used the word in writing.

Define mandate


Breaking down a word into its parts to determine meaning is often a goofy unscholarly way to define words. For example, the English word mandate does not mean, a date with a man or a man on a date or a man who likes to eat dates. Mandate refers to authority or permission to do something. Breaking down this word into its constituent parts does not help us define the word.

Define scholarship


Let's look at the English word, scholarship. Obviously, if we break down this word into its parts, scholars and hip, we discover that it refers to a scholar's hip, a hip being a joint in the human body. Scholarship does not then, as we might suppose, imply great learning. Instead, it is a reference to the largest joint in the human body. Breaking down this word into its constituent parts does not help us define the word.

Of course, I'm using absurdity to make a point. We do not determine the meaning of the Greek word, arsenokoitai, arseno = man and koitai = bed, by breaking it down into its parts. Insisting that arsenokoitai means a man who sleeps with men, when no Greek speaking person used the word that way in the first 14 centuries of church history, is just too silly for words. It is hard to respect "scholars" who define words that way. Breaking down this word into its constituent parts does not help us define the word.

That kind of pseudo-scholarship led some Bible translators to conclude that verses like 1 Cor 6:9 and 1 Tim 1:10 condemn homosexuals because they use the Greek word, arsenokoitai. As I demonstrate on my pages about malakoi and arsenokoites, the historical record is clear that those words rarely, if ever, were used in ancient times to mean homosexual.

The Bible is God's inerrant, infallible word. Yet some versions like the NIV sneak the modern word homosexual into their translation. That causes confusion in the body of Christ and has caused gays and lesbians much heartache down the centuries.


The problem with using the word homosexual in ANY Bible translation is that homosexual is a recent word. It came into usage in Austria and Germany in the 1860s and began appearing in English language dictionaries around 1900. For the first 1900 years of church history, no one used the word homosexual because it did not exist as a word in that time period.

Obviously, if the word homosexual, with all its modern connotations, did not exist when the Bible was written, it is wise not to use that word when translating the Bible. If God or the human authors of the Bible intended to reference gay partnerships which are unrelated to fertility goddess worship, they could have done so by using ancient Greek or Latin words from that time period.

It's interesting that every verse in the Bible which is alleged to prohibit homosexuality is in the context of fertility goddess worship. The life-changing information on this website presents the truth about gays and the Bible if you will read it and take it to heart.

You asked another question.


Were the Illuminati behind mistranslating the Bible? I do not have much information about that particular topic but a book, New Age Bible Versions, by G.A. Riplinger which I read years ago, linked Greek manuscript experts like Westcott and Hort to spiritism and may provide information you will find interesting. It is also available through Amazon at this Link.

Helpful Informative Links


Do you know the real
meaning of arsenokoitai?


FREE PDF
Words they left out
of most new Bibles


What must I do to be saved?

FREE Bible studies

Return to Gay Christian FAQ

Return to 101 Community

Return to
Gay Christian 101 Home Page


Comments for Why and how was the Bible mistranslated?

Click here to add your own comments

Mar 10, 2014
Trying to Understand
by: Henry

Before I say anything, I first want to tell you that I really love your work here on this website and how you always have research and evidence to back up what you're saying instead of just assuming things like other people would. That is why I believe your information is so reliable, and there's so much more I want to learn. I also believe that, as a gay Christian, part of my purpose in this world isn't to change myself and turn straight, or to do anything about my sexuality (at least not anymore. For many years I've suffered from self-hatred from believing I had to change in order for God to love me.). Instead, when Jesus told us to endure until the end, he means that we need to still believe in him and trust him no matter how many people tell us that God doesn't love us and that we won't make it into Heaven. Because we will, and we are dedicated to him.

Well anyway, here is my question. I'm sorry for bothering you about this. If the Bible has been mistranslated or misinterpreted about homosexuality, what else do you think could have been mistranslated and misunderstood in the Bible? What if there is something we're doing in everyday life that is sinful and we don't even know it's a sin? Is there anything else in the bible that needs context to be understood properly?

Rick's comment: Hi Henry - thanks for your kind words. I always recommend the old King James Bible (not the NKJV) because it is the most accurate Bible and is not at all anti-gay. All of the newer versions leave out many words!
The Bible is trustworthy and reliable and true. Every GLBT Christian should read and learn and believe and obey the Bible. If English is your language, then get an old-fashioned KJV Study Bible - you will be amazed at what you learn!

On my FREE Downloads page, you will find more than 330 pages of FREE Bible studies you can print out and fill in to teach yourself the Bible and how to be a disciple of Jesus. I hope you will use those incredible resources to help yourself grow spiritually. Many thanks!

Oct 01, 2015
etymology
by: Ben Gosling

Just to straighten out two mistakes over meanings:

'mandate' is a command or order, not giving permission

'pederasty' involves a boy, not a younger man as you put it, hence 'pedobaptism' is infant baptism.

Rick's comment: Hi Ben - Thanks for the input. The definition of mandate includes the idea of giving permission, as for example, when done by a government official or by an employer.

Pederasty does not always involve a boy. In the Greek and Roman context, pederasty rarely involved a young boy. Instead, pederasty normally involved a teenager and the pederastic relationship sometimes continued until the young man was in his twenties.

May 16, 2016
Tiny issues here
by: Brian Rich

Alot of words we use to translate the Bible werent used. Because the Bible was written in Greek and Hebrew primarily. Homosexual is a translation of a word from anotger language. Same with:Thee,Thou,Thine,Sayest etc. So to say the word homosexual wasnt used...is a pointless argument. Duh,its engish and modern,its called translating.

A more valid argument could be made here,that was elemantary. Also,going back into Jewish thought,we know that homosexuality was condemned from within their culture. There is nothing pro homosexuality in the KJV at all. Very forced interpration here,sorry.

Rick's comment: Hi Brian - What odd comments - Did you even bother to read the article you're commenting on? I do not make any of the arguments you purport to answer.

Click here to add your own comments

Return to Gay Christian FAQ.

Site Build It! Site Build It!