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Does "likewise" in Romans 1:27 equate gay sex with lesbian sex?
(Washington DC)
Augustine, AD 354-430
One of the popular mis-interpretations of Romans 1:26-27 is that its talking about lesbians in v. 26 and gay men in v. 27. I disagree with that view for five thoughtful reasons.
I. Instead of interpreting Romans 1:26-27 as Paul blasting lesbians and gay men, it better fits the context of Paul's argument against idolatry, to understand that he is describing female shrine prostitutes in v. 26 and male shrine prostitutes in v. 27. Both groups practiced idolatry in first century Rome.
II. Early Christians understood Romans 1:26 to be talking about non-procreative heterosexual sex, not lesbian sex.
- Aristides, in AD 126, understood Paul in Romans 1 to be referring to shrine prostitution, as did Justin Martyr, around AD 150. Both men were native Greek speakers who lived within 100 years of the apostle Paul.
They were intimately familiar with Roman culture and doctrinal beliefs in the early church. If anyone had insight into what Paul meant in Romans 1, it would be these two preachers and they understood Paul to be describing shrine prostitution in Romans 1. Have you given that dramatic fact the weight it deserves in your consideration of this important passage?
- Clement of Alexandria, around AD 200, Anastasios, around the mid 200s AD, Augustine, around AD 380, understood Romans 1:26 to be referring to women having non-procreative sex with men.
Anastasios, an early Christian writer, wrote a marginal note in his copy of Clement's book, Paidagogos, at the point at which Clement cites Romans 1:26.
In his note, Anastasios clearly dismisses the view that Paul was referring to lesbianism in his comments on Romans 1:26. He says: "Clearly they (the females in v. 26) do not go into one another but rather offer themselves to the men." -Brooton, Love Between Women, 1996, p. 337
Augustine wrote: "But if one has relations (even with one's wife) in a part of the body which was not made for begetting children, such relations are against nature and indecent. In fact, the same apostle earlier said the same thing about women. 'For their women exchanged natural relations for those which are against nature.'" -Augustine, Marriage and Desire, 20:35
- Baptist Commentator John Gill, 1697-1771, and Derrick Sherwin Bailey, 1910-1984, hold the same view about Romans 1:26, that its referring to non-procreative sex between men and women.
III. "Likewise" does link v. 26 with v. 27 but since the link is part of Paul's argument against idolatry, the similarity between v. 26 and v. 27 points us to the idolatry of men and women committing the sin of shrine prostitution, not homosexuality. Homosexuality is not shrine prostitution because things different are not equal. IV. Ancient Jews did not understand Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 as prohibitions of lesbianism. Therefore it makes no sense to believe that Paul, a first century Jew, would suddenly adopt a modern argument against lesbians and insert it into his argument against idolatry. V. There is only one female sexual practice which is condemned in the Old Testament, which also has a male counterpart which is condemned in the Old Testament, Deuteronomy 23:17-18 AND which was also practiced in first century Rome. That condemned sexual practice for both women and men is shrine prostitution in worship of the fertility goddess. Related LinksHow did you decide that Romans 1:26 does not condemn lesbians?Are lesbians treated the same as gays in the Bible?Who is Jesus? Do you know what Jesus said about hell? Does Romans 1:26 condemn lesbians?Does becoming a Christian make you heterosexual?What did against nature mean in the first century AD? Does the Bible say homosexuals will go to hell?Do bisexuals go to heaven?Click here to return to Gay Christian FAQ Page.We've answered the question: Does "likewise" in Romans 1:27 equate gay sex with lesbian sex? Click here to return to Gay Christian 101 Home Page.Original question:
"I understand what you are saying about what is meant by the Bible when it says the women went against nature (Romans 1:26). I too believe that can be interpreted to mean sex with angels, anal sex to avoid pregnancy, etc.
However when it says in the next verse, "likewise the men also turned and were consumed with lust for one another," doesn't it seem to be saying that the men having sex with one another was unnatural and from that it seems to point to the previous verse and mean that women with women is unnatural?
My thoughts are a little jumbled because it's hard to not get emotional over this topic and it sometimes clouds my thinking. I hope you can understand my question."
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