What does 'You shall not lie with a man as with a woman' mean?

by I think you are wrong
(Somewhere in cyberspace)

The words mean that what Moses is describing, using sex to worship Ashtoreth, the fertility goddess consort of Molech, Leviticus 18:21-22, is sinful activity. This historically accurate explanation is often dismissed as nothing more than gays making excuses for their sinful proclivities.

Honest Christians however, are willing to go beyond knee-jerk first impressions. Did you know that conservative anti-gay mega-church pastor John MacArthur believes the context of Leviticus 18:21-22 IS cult temple shrine prostitution? Here's what John MacArthur says about the context.

"Judah’s syncretistic worship was reflected in the practice of swearing by the Lord and, at the same time, by Milcom, who may be either the Ammonite deity of 1 Kings 11:5, 33 or Molech, the worship of whom included child sacrifice, astrology and temple prostitution (cf. Lev. 18:21; 2 Kin 17:16; Ezek 23:37; Amos 5:25, 26; Acts 7:40-43)."

The MacArthur Bible Commentary, by John MacArthur, 2005, Thomas Nelson Publishers, Nashville, p. 1038.

Notice that even someone as anti-gay as John MacArthur, pastor of Grace Community Church, Sun Valley, CA, admits in writing that Leviticus 18:21-22 is describing temple prostitution. In plainer words, the context was NOT gays and homosexuality.

If you reject the fact-based cultural historical religious context which some anti-gay leaders acknowledge, I wonder why? So here's a question for you. What cultural historical religious facts cause you to believe the issue in Israel 3500 years ago was homosexuality?

Most anti-gay Christians who reject the truth about Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 have not done much study on the topic. They're going on guesswork and assumptions instead of facts.

Did you know that leading anti-gay author and speaker, Dr. Robert Gagnon, informs us that most of the homo-sex going on in Israel at the time Leviticus was written around 1450 BC, was cult prostitute sex.

"I do not doubt that the circles out of which Lev 18:22 was produced had in view homosexual cult prostitution, at least partly. Homosexual cult prostitution appears to have been the primary form in which homosexual intercourse was practiced in Israel." The Bible And Homosexual Practice, p. 130.

Gagnon devotes more than ten pages of his anti-gay book to proving that the problem Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 addressed WAS shrine prostitution. Isn't that interesting?

Are you an honest Christian?

Honest anti-gay Christians would, at this point, re-evaluate and re-study their anti-gay misinterpretation of this verse. Honest people deal in facts, not opinion. Are you honest, dear reader?

When leading anti-gay Christians like John MacArthur and Robert Gagnon admit the context in Levicitus was cult shrine temple prostitution, that's an important admission. Both men still use Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 as if those verses refer to homosexuality but at least they're honest enough to admit the real context is shrine prostitution.

In my opinion, their income and their standing in their respective religious communities is tied to them vociferously denouncing homosexuality. So in spite of the fact that they know the truth and have put the truth in writing, they keep beating the anti-gay horse. Pray for them to repent and get right with God on this issue.

Just so we're clear, the issue in 1450 BC Israel (Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13), was people using sex to worship false gods. The issue was NOT lesbianism, NOT homosexuality, NOT bisexuals, NOT transgender people, NOT two men or two women falling in love and covenanting to spend their lives together.

Got it? Anyone? Anyone? Bueller?

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How do you interpret
Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13,
man should not lay with man?

Are gay relationships always
outside God's created order?