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What makes you so sure that your interpretation of the Scriptures is correct? What facts give you confidence that the Bible does indeed allow for gay sex and marriage?
by Richard Rick Brentlinger Answers1. Because the complementarian interpretation of Genesis 2:24, that God only blesses an Adam and Eve type of marriage, one man with one woman, is simply wrong. God richly blessed polygamous marriages (multiple wives), which disproves the complementarian interpretation. God also blessed incestuous marriages (between brother and sister in the case of Abraham and Sarah, between nephew and aunt in the case of Moses' parents, Amram and Jochebed, between first cousins in the case of Jacob marrying Leah and Rachel). The point is that God is not locked into the box so many Christians try to put Him in when it comes to what kind of marriages God will bless. 2. Because the traditional interpretation of the clobber passages, which condemns committed gay and lesbian partnerships, does not hold water when examined in context. 3. Because although Sodom is mentioned 48 times in the Bible, no author of the Bible mentions or condemns homosexuality in any context where Sodom is mentioned. 4. Because early Christians did not interpret Romans 1:26-27 as a universal indictment of gay and lesbian partnerships. Instead, early Christians understood Paul to be condemning shrine prostitution in Romans 1. 5. Because things that are different are not equal. It is dishonest to take verses about shrine prostitution and interpret them as universal condemnations of homosexuality when the original writer and the original hearers did not interpret them that way. 6. Because scripture cannot mean now what it did not mean then. If the clobber passages were not condemning committed, faithful, non-cultic same sex relationships when they were originally given, then they cannot be condemning those relationships now. We've answered the surety question. Click here to return to Gay Christian 101 Home Page.
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