Can you convince me that Romans 1 is NOT talking about gays and lesbians?

by Grant
(near L.A.)

The Colosseum in Rome

The Colosseum in Rome

There are many Godly reasons to reject the tired old argument that "Romans 1 is talking about gays and lesbians." I'll list a few reasons here and provide Links at the end which point you to more information and more reasons.

  1. Old Testament Law never condemns lesbians and never prohibits lesbian partnerships. Therefore there is no basis in Jewish Law to condemn female homosexuality.
    "Because the law worketh wrath:
    for where no law is, there is no transgression."
    -Romans 4:15

    "For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed where there is no law." -Romans 5:13
    Since the Law of Moses does NOT condemn or prohibit lesbianism, it makes no sense to argue that Paul intended to condemn lesbians in Romans 1:26 because he has no basis in Jewish law to make that condemnation.

    INstead, Romans 1 condemns idolaters who:

    (a) rejected God
    (b) refused to worship God
    (c) worshiped idols

    If you are a saved, born again gay Christian, trusting Jesus Christ as your personal Savior, you have NOT rejected God, you have NOT refused to worship God and you are NOT worshiping the fertility goddess. Therefore, you are NOT included in the group of people Romans 1:26-27 condemns.

  2. The apostle Paul was a Jewish legal expert who knew Jewish Law backwards and forwards. Paul based what he believed on Old Testament, Jewish Law and what God showed him by revelation. That's why Paul frequently quotes the Old Testament in his letters.

  3. Because the Law of Moses does not condemn lesbians, there is absolutely no reason to assume that Paul suddenly goes off on a tangent from his argument against idolatry to condemn lesbians in Romans 1:26.

  4. Paul's tightly reasoned argument against idolatry (note that he is NOT arguing against lesbians and gay men - instead, Paul mentions female and male shrine prostitution as examples of idolatry), compares what the women were doing in v. 26 with what the men were doing in v. 27 - "likewise also the men..."

  5. If Paul is not condemning lesbians in Romans 1:26 then Paul is not condemning gay men in Romans 1:27. His words are aimed at female and male shrine prostitutes who worshiped the fertility goddess (not lesbians and gay men and not bisexuals and not transgendered people).

  6. What Paul condemns in Romans 1:26-27 is idolatry, one manifestation of which was female and male shrine prostitution, a common activity in first century Rome.

Helpful Links

Does Romans 1:26-27 condemn homosexuals?

How can you say that Romans 1 has nothing to do with homosexuality?

What is the historical context of Romans 1?

What about Romans and shrine prostitution?

What does against nature mean in Romans?

Does Romans 1:26 condemn lesbians?

How did you decide that Romans 1:26 does not condemn lesbians?

Are lesbians treated the same as gays in the Bible?

How can you reconcile being gay with what the Bible says?

Does the Bible say homosexuals will go to hell?

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Sep 13, 2015
The Ten Commandments
by: Sparrow

If God is truly against homosexuality (as He is adultery, murder, false witness, etc.)—if it's such an ABOMINATION (as the non-gays love to use the word!)… is it unreasonable to think that He surely would have included it in His Ten Commandments?

Dec 02, 2015
Just curious about the words used
by: Jeanne

Sure that many Bible writers with the guide of the Holy Spirit used different words that are not use to condemn gay/lesbian (just as you said to some of your links that there are a lot of words they can use if they want to point out sin for lesbians and gays, not just in Romans but other books in Bible).

But why didn't they just say "shrine prostitutes" or any direct point like "drunkards", "thief" etc.; but "prostitutes" and "idolaters" are stated/separated and the phrase "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination."?

Rick's comment: Hi Jeanne - The Holy Spirit led the human authors of the Bible to use the words they used. Why He chose certain words instead of other words is something we will have to wait to find out until we get to heaven.

Some words used in the Bible were well known in Bible times, to have a certain meaning when used in a certain context. Therefore people in Bible times, who spoke Hebrew or Greek as their native language, would have clearly understood the meaning of the words used.

Because most of us do not speak Hebrew or Greek as our native language, we need to do more study, 2 Timothy 2:15, to understand God's truth.

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